And Jesus and his disciples went into the village of
Caesarea Philippi; and on the way he was interrogating his disciples, saying to them, “Who do the people say me
to be?”
ἐξῆλθεν AAI 3s, ἐξέρχομαι, 1) to go or come forth of 1a) with
mention of the place out of which one goes, or the point from which he
departs
ἐπηρώτα , IAI 3s, ἐπερωτάω , 1) to accost one with an enquiry, put a question
to, enquiry of, ask, interrogate 2) to address one with a request
or demand 2a) to ask of or demand of one
λέγων: PAPart nsm, λέγω 1) to say, to speak
λέγουσιν PAI 3p, λέγω, 1) to say, to speak
εἶναι PAInf, εἰμί, 1) to be, to exist, to happen, to be
present
1. The verb “interrogate” (ἐπερωτάω) could be translated as “asked” (KJV, NIV, ESV, NRSV),
but it also could take on a more intensive meaning because of the prefix (ἐπἱ).
In Mt. 16:1, for example, the NRSV translates
this verb that the religious leaders “ask” Jesus for a sign, but the editors make
the subheading that they “demand” a
sign. There are other words that could carry a much less ambiguous simple
request or casual inquiry.
28 οἱ δὲ εἶπαν αὐτῷ λέγοντες [ὅτι] Ἰωάννην τὸν βαπτιστήν, καὶ ἄλλοι, Ἠλίαν, ἄλλοι δὲ ὅτι εἷς τῶν προφητῶν.
Yet they answered him saying, [“]John the Baptist; and
others, Elijah, yet still others one of the prophets.[”]
εἶπαν:
AAI 3p, λέγω 1) to say, to speak
λέγοντες:
PAPart npm, λέγω 1) to say, to speak
1. This verse has evidently been
worked over a bit in the scribal process. The brackets around the [ὅτι] signify that
other manuscripts do not have this word. I use the Novum Testamentum Graece, Nestle-Aland 26th edition (1979, Deutsche
Bibelgesellschaft, Stuttgart) that is available via www.greekbible.com.
It is simply not a part of my exegetical work to compare Greek texts. It seems
– just from a quick glance and gut feeling – that the scribal edits here have
to do with locating whether the participle “saying” is part of the quote or
introduces the quote. The difference could look like this: “The disciples
answered, saying ‘John the Baptists …’” or “The disciples answered, ‘They are
saying John the Baptist …’”
2. The phrase “still others” is how the NRSV and NIV try to interpret the “δὲ ὅτι ” phrase.
29 καὶ αὐτὸς ἐπηρώτα αὐτούς, Ὑμεῖς δὲ τίνα με λέγετε εἶναι; ἀποκριθεὶς ὁ Πέτρος λέγει αὐτῷ, Σὺ εἶ ὁ Χριστός.
And he was interrogating them, “But who do you say me to be?” Having answered Peter says
to him, “You are the Christ.”
ἐπηρώτα, IAI 3s, 1) to accost one with an enquiry, put a
question to, enquiry of, ask, interrogate 2) to address one with a
request or demand 2a) to ask of or demand of one
λέγετε, PAI 2p, λέγω 1) to say, to speak
εἶναι PAInf, εἰμί, 1) to be, to exist, to happen, to be
present
ἀποκριθεὶς: APPart nsm, ἀποκρίνομαι, 1) to give an answer to a question
proposed, to answer
λέγει: PAI 3s, λέγω 1) to say, to speak
εἶ: PAI 2s, εἰμί, 1) to be, to exist, to happen, to be
present
1. To this point, I am going with the usual translation, "Who do ... people say/you say." Strictly, it seems to me it could be "Who are people saying/you saying." I have the feeling that Jesus is inquiring what the buzz is among the people and what the disciples are contributing to the conversation. That would make Peter's response a bit less of a profession, directly to Jesus, but more of an indication of what the disciples are adding to the buzz about Jesus. Notice that in the next verse, Jesus rebukes "them" and not just Peter.
30 καὶ ἐπετίμησεν αὐτοῖς ἵνα μηδενὶ λέγωσιν περὶ αὐτοῦ.
And he rebuked them in order that they would say nothing about him.
ἐπετίμησεν: AAI 3s, ἐπιτιμάω See v. 32, 1) to show
honour to, … 4) to tax with fault, rate, chide, rebuke, reprove, censure
severely 4a) to admonish or charge sharply
λέγωσιν: PASubj 3p, λέγω 1) to say, to speak
1. The verb “rebuked” (ἐπιτιμάω) gets curious treatment in this passage from
translators. It shows up here and in v.32 and in v.33. In vv.32-3 almost all
translations have “rebuke” (NRSV, NIV, ESV, YLT, KJV). But, in v.30, all of
them soften the word to “warned” (NIV), “charged” (KJV), “strictly charged”
(YLT, ESV). The NRSV doesn’t use “rebuke,” but it does maintain some of the
edginess of the verb with “sternly ordered.”
2. This rebuke is often treated as yet another instance of the riddle that is posited by the phrase, "Messianic secret." The idea is that Jesus simply doesn't want the disciples to say that he is the Christ/Messiah, and then the remaining question is, why not?
3. I am by no means questioning whether or not Jesus is the Christ, to the gospel writer or to me. I call Jesus the Christ and I serve a lovely congregation that makes that profession. And the first verse of this book names Jesus as the Christ. So, to me, that's not the issue personally or textually. The question is whether Jesus wants the disciples adding to the conversation that he is the Christ. And that continues the riddle that I think is being addressed with the phrase "Messianic secret." My reading - and who am I that anyone should care - is at the end of this translation below.
31 Καὶ ἤρξατο διδάσκειν αὐτοὺς ὅτι δεῖ τὸν υἱὸν τοῦ ἀνθρώπου πολλὰ
παθεῖν καὶ ἀποδοκιμασθῆναι ὑπὸ τῶν πρεσβυτέρων καὶ τῶν ἀρχιερέων
καὶ τῶν γραμματέων καὶ ἀποκτανθῆναι καὶ μετὰ τρεῖς ἡμέρας ἀναστῆναι:
Then he began to teach them that it is binding that the Son
of Man to suffer much, and to be rejected by the elders, the chief priests, and
the scribes, and to be killed, and after three days to rise.
ἤρξατο : AMI 3s, ἄρχω, 1) to be chief, to lead, to rule
διδάσκειν: PAInf, διδάσκω, 1) to teach 1a) to hold discourse
with others in order to instruct them, deliver didactic discourses
δεῖ: PAI 3s, δέω, 1) to bind tie, fasten 1a) to
bind, fasten with chains, to throw into chains 1b) metaph. 1b1)
Satan is said to bind a woman bent together by means of a demon, as his
messenger, taking possession of the woman and preventing her from
standing upright 1b2) to bind, put under obligation, of the law, duty etc
παθεῖν: AAInf, πάσχω, 1) to be affected or have been affected,
to feel, have a sensible experience, to undergo 1a) in a good
sense, to be well off, in good case 1b) in a bad sense, to suffer sadly,
be in a bad plight 1b1) of a sick person
ἀποδοκιμασθῆναι: APInf, ἀποδοκιμάζω, 1) to disapprove, reject,
repudiate
ἀποκτανθῆναι: APInf, ἀποκτείνω, 1) to kill in any way whatever 1a)
to destroy, to allow to perish 2) metaph. to extinguish, abolish
2a) to inflict mortal death 2b) to deprive of spiritual life and procure
eternal misery in hell
ἀναστῆναι: AAInf, ἀνίστημι, 1) to cause to rise up, raise up
1a) raise up from laying down 1b) to raise up from the dead 1c) to
raise up, cause to be born, to cause to appear, bring forward
1. The verb “binding” (δέω) is typically translated as “must,” but it is a verb and
it has the primary meaning of something being in chains – which gives it
intensity and necessity.
2. This is the first of three disclosures, so it seems to be the heart of Jesus' teaching about himself. This is what the disciples should be adding to the buzz.
32 καὶ παρρησίᾳ τὸν λόγον ἐλάλει. καὶ προσλαβόμενος ὁ Πέτρος αὐτὸν ἤρξατο ἐπιτιμᾶν αὐτῷ.
And he was saying the word openly. And taking him Peter
began rebuking him.
ἐλάλει: IAI 3s, λαλέω, 1) to utter a voice or emit a
sound 2) to speak 2a) to use the tongue or the faculty of
speech 2b) to utter articulate sounds
προσλαβόμενος: AMPart
nsm, λαμβάνω with πρός towards: to take thereto, that is to say
in addition, to take besides. In NT middle, to take or receive to and for one's
self
ἤρξατο: AMI 3s, ἄρχω, 1) to be chief, to lead, to rule
ἐπιτιμᾶν,v 3sg, PAI 3s, ἐπιτιμάω, 1)
to show honor to, to honor 2) to raise the price of 3) to adjudge,
award, in the sense of merited penalty 4) to tax with fault, rate, chide,
rebuke, reprove, censure severely 4a) to admonish or charge sharply
1. At least we know that this disclosure is not a secret. Jesus is saying it openly.
2. It's pretty audacious to imagine that Peter felt it was his place to rebuke Jesus for this disclosure. And, again, the word "rebuke" is the same word translated as "charged," "sternly ordered," etc. in many translations from v.30.
33 ὁ δὲ ἐπιστραφεὶς καὶ ἰδὼν τοὺς μαθητὰς αὐτοῦ ἐπετίμησεν Πέτρῳ καὶ
λέγει,Υπαγε ὀπίσω μου, Σατανᾶ, ὅτι οὐ φρονεῖς τὰ τοῦ θεοῦ ἀλλὰ τὰ τῶν
ἀνθρώπων.
But having turned and having seen his disciples, he rebuked Peter and says, “Get
behind me, Satan! Because you are not minding the things of God but
the things of people.”
ἐπιστραφεὶς: APP nsm, ἐπιστρέφω, 1) transitively 1a) to turn
to 1a1) to the worship of the true God 1b) to cause to return, to
bring back
ἰδὼν: AAP nsm, ὁράω, 1) to see with the eyes 2) to see
with the mind, to perceive, know 3) to see, i.e. become acquainted with
by experience, to experience
ἐπετίμησεν: AAI 3s, ἐπιτιμάω, 1) to show honour to, to honour …
4) to tax with fault, rate, chide, rebuke, reprove, censure severely 4a)
to admonish or charge sharply
λέγει: PAI 3s, λέγω, 1) to say, to speak
Υπαγε: PAImpv 2s, ὑπάγω, 1) to lead under, bring under 2)
to withdraw one's self, to go away, depart
φρονεῖς: PAI 2s, φρονέω, 1) to have understanding, be wise
2) to feel, to think 2a) to have an opinion of one's self, think of
one's self, to be modest, not let one's opinion (though just) of himself exceed the
bounds of modesty
1. I’m curious as to what role the “having turned and having seen his disciples” plays in this conversation. Is that Mark’s way of explaining the “Satan” reference, that although v.32 implies that Peter took Jesus aside, his remark needed a strong reaction because the others were hearing it (and perhaps agreeing)? I’m speculating, but I suspect this remark is connected to the ‘taking him’ in v.32.
2. “Get behind me” is an interesting phrase. Of course, by now it has become a common phrase, because of its use in this and parallel texts. But, in a naïve reading of the text we can’t assume that this phrase has the meaning that it has collected over time. The verb could be “go,” as it is with the Syro-Phoenician woman in c.7. But the “behind me” part is how Jesus names discipleship in the next verse. Is Jesus calling Peter to become a disciple and not to presume anything more?
3. The verb “minding” (φρονέω) is a very rich term in philosophy. Hans-Georg Gadamer, in Truth and Method, for example, talks about how “phronesis” is a kind of reflective ‘wisdom.’ The KJV translates this verb as “savoring.” I think that’s better than the NIV’s weak “have in mind”. The problem is Peter’s philosophy, not his passing thought.
34 Καὶ προσκαλεσάμενος
τὸν ὄχλον σὺν τοῖς μαθηταῖς αὐτοῦ εἶπεν αὐτοῖς, Εἴ τις θέλει ὀπίσω μου ἀκολουθεῖν, ἀπαρνησάσθω ἑαυτὸν καὶ ἀράτω τὸν σταυρὸν αὐτοῦ καὶ ἀκολουθείτω μοι.
And having called the crowd with his disciples, he said
to them, “If any wants to follow behind me, he must deny himself and take up his
cross and follow me.
προσκαλεσάμενος: AMP nsm, προσκαλέομαι, 1) to call to 2) to call to one's self
3) to bid to come to one's self 4) metaph. 4a) God is said to call
to himself the Gentiles, aliens as they are from him, by inviting them,
through the preaching of the gospel unto fellowship with himself in the
Messiah's kingdom
θέλει: PAI 3s, θέλω, 1) to will, have in mind, intend 1a) to be resolved or
determined, to purpose 1b) to desire, to wish 1c) to love
1c1) to like to do a thing, be fond of doing 1d) to take delight in, have
pleasure
ἀκολουθεῖν: PAInf, ἀκολουθέω, 1) to follow one who precedes, join him as his
attendant, accompany him 2) to join one as a disciple, become or be
his disciple 2a) side with his party
ἀπαρνησάσθω: AMImpv 3s, ἀπαρνέομαι, 1) to deny 1a) to affirm that one has no
acquaintance or connection with someone 1b) to forget one's self, lose
sight of one's self and one's own interests. Could this
be the opposite of φρονεῖς in
v.33?
ἀράτω : AAImpv 3s, αἴρω, 1) to raise up, elevate, lift up 1a) to raise from the ground,
take up: stones 1b) to raise upwards, elevate, lift up: the hand
ἀκολουθείτω: PAImpv 3s, ἀκολουθέω, 1) to follow one who precedes, join him as his
attendant, accompany him 2) to join one as a disciple, become or be
his disciple 2a) side with his party
1. I apologize for the male language. In a refined translation, I would strive to make this more gender-inclusive, but since it is singular and since saying “If anyone wants … that one must …” sounds so different from plain speech, I’m translating this literally at this point.
2. For those of us who read this story two millennia after the fact, the referent for “taking up a cross” is the crucifixion of Jesus. Perhaps we can assume that was the case for Mark’s readers as well, especially since Jesus has just made the first disclosure about his impending death. Within the narrative itself, however, this is a curious reference. What did it mean – prior to the crucifixion of Jesus – to “take up your cross”? Even in disclosing his impending death, Jesus only says that he will be killed, not crucified on a cross. Did this phrase have meaning prior to Jesus’ crucifixion, or it is only meaningful as a post-crucifixion text – which would indicate that it is not a direct, real-time quote of what Jesus said?
35ὃς γὰρ ἐὰν θέλῃ τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ σῶσαι ἀπολέσει αὐτήν: ὃς δ' ἂν
ἀπολέσει τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ ἕνεκεν ἐμοῦ καὶ τοῦ εὐαγγελίου σώσει αὐτήν.
For whoever wants to save his soul will lose it; but whoever will lose his soul on account of me and the gospel,
will save it.
θέλῃ: PASubj 3s, θέλω, 1) to will, have in mind, intend
1a) to be resolved or determined, to purpose 1b) to desire, to wish
1c) to love 1c1) to like to do a thing, be fond of doing 1d) to
take delight in, have pleasure
σῶσαι: AAInf, σῴζω, 1) to save, keep safe and sound, to
rescue from danger or destruction 1a) one (from injury or peril)
1a1) to save a suffering one (from perishing), i.e. one suffering from
disease, to make well, heal, restore to health
ἀπολέσει: FAI 3s, ἀπόλλυμι, 1) to destroy 1a) to put out of
the way entirely, abolish, put an end to ruin 1b) render useless
1c) to kill 1d) to declare that one must be put to death 1e)
metaph. to devote or give over to eternal misery in hell 1f) to perish, to
be lost, ruined, destroyed 2) to destroy 2a) to lose
σώσει: FAI 3s, σῴζω, 1) to save, keep safe and sound, to
rescue from danger or destruction 1a) one (from injury or peril)
1a1) to save a suffering one (from perishing), i.e. one suffering from
disease, to make well, heal, restore to health
1. It is always a challenge for me to translate “soul” (ψυχὴν). It may be translated “life,” although there are other terms that more easily translate that way. The Greek word is the root for the English words “psyche,” “psychology,” etc., referring to the mind or that part of our existence that seems identifiably different from the body, however interconnected. And, of course, in Greek philosophy, the “immortality of the soul” reified and elevated the psyche to that part of human existence that both pre-existed our birth and continues to exist after our death. One of the challenges of the early church was to translate the Hebrew concepts of life, breath, nephesh, etc., and interpret them alongside of Greek terms. I’m not sure that the process should be as finalized as it appears to be these days.
36τί γὰρ ὠφελεῖ ἄνθρωπον κερδῆσαι τὸν κόσμον ὅλον καὶ ζημιωθῆναι τὴν ψυχὴν αὐτοῦ;
For what profits a man to acquire the whole world and to endanger his soul?
ὠφελεῖ: PAI 3s, ὠφελέω, 1) to assist, to be useful or
advantageous, to profit
κερδῆσαι: AAInf, κερδαίνω, 1) to gain, acquire, to get gain
2) metaph. 2a) of gain arising from shunning or escaping from evil (where
we say "to spare one's self", "be spared") 2b)
to gain any one i.e. to win him over to the kingdom of God,
to gain one to faith in Christ 2c) to gain Christ's favour and
fellowship
ζημιωθῆναι: APInf, ζημιόω, 1) to affect with damage, do damage
to 2) to sustain damage, to receive injury, suffer loss
1. This verse could be heard in economic terms: what ‘profit’ to ‘gain’ and yet ‘lose’?
37τί γὰρ δοῖ ἄνθρωπος ἀντάλλαγμα τῆς ψυχῆς αὐτοῦ;
For what might a man give in
return for his soul?
δοῖ: AASubj 3s, δίδωμι, to give, present (with
implied notion of giving freely unforced; opposed to ἀποδίδωμι). Hence, in various connections, to yield, deliver,
supply, commit, etc
38ὃς γὰρ ἐὰν ἐπαισχυνθῇ με καὶ τοὺς ἐμοὺς λόγους ἐν τῇ γενεᾷ ταύτῃ τῇ
μοιχαλίδι καὶ ἁμαρτωλῷ, καὶ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ἐπαισχυνθήσεται αὐτὸν
ὅταν ἔλθῃ ἐν τῇ
δόξῃ τοῦ πατρὸς αὐτοῦ μετὰ τῶν ἀγγέλων τῶν ἁγίων.
For
whoever might be ashamed of me and my words in this adulterous and sinful
generation, the son of man also shall be ashamed when he may come in the glory
of his father with the holy angels.”
ἐπαισχυνθῇ: APSubj 3s, ἐπαισχύνομαι, 1) to be ashamed
ἐπαισχυνθήσεται: FPI 3s,
ἐπαισχύνομαι,
1) to be ashamed
ἔλθῃ: AASubj 3s, ἔρχομαι, 1) to come 1a) of persons
1a1) to come from one place to another, and used both of persons arriving
and of those returning
1. There are several levels at which we can apprise what it means to “be ashamed” of Jesus and his words. It could speak to the boldness with which we proclaim a gospel that is ‘foolishness’ to some. It could speak to the situation facing Mark’s church, during a time of the diaspora caused by the destruction of Jerusalem. Some people see it as a foreshadowing of Peter’s denial and all of the disciples’ fleeing from Jesus at his arrest. In the story, however, it seems to refer to Peter’s rebuke because Peter did not accept Jesus’ disclosure that he was to suffer and die.
REFLECTION
As I
indicated in the beginning remark, I believe this story is wrongly coded as
Peter’s confession, where Peter – for the first time of any disciple – gets it
right in calling Jesus “the Christ.” Matthew sees it that way, with Jesus
blessing Peter and saying “Flesh and blood did not reveal this to you …”
etc. But, in Mark, I don’t believe
Peter’s answer is correct – at least it is not what Jesus wanted the disciples
to be telling people that he was (the question is “Who are you saying me to
be?”) Working under the “messianic secret” motif, many interpretations say that
Peter got it right, but Jesus “sternly warned” or “charged” the disciples to
keep the “Christ” identification mum because … well, the reason for the messianic
secret is not so clear.
A plain
reading would say that Jesus rebuked them for telling others that he was the
Christ. The interpretive question is, why would Jesus rebuke them for saying
that about him? We, of course, accept it as the right proclamation about Jesus.
So, what’s the problem?
I argue
that the ‘problem’ is that whatever Peter and the others meant by “the Christ”
was in contrast with the rejection, suffering, death, and raising that the son
of man was “bound” to experience. In that sense, the disciples’ answer was
wrong. Peter should have answered on their behalf, “You are the son of man, the
one who will be rejected, suffer, die, and be raised.” Jesus vehemently rejects
being named “the Christ” in this story.
Peter’s
reaction is also vehement. He rejects Jesus’ suffering and death as a necessary
part of what Jesus has been preaching about the presence of the Reign of God. And,
of course, Jesus’ response to Peter’s rebuke is to demand that if they want any
part of what he is about, they too must be willing to die.
It seems to me that discipleship
of the suffering son of man is different than discipleship of the
Christ/Messiah. One is a godly reflective decision to accept rejection,
suffering, dying, and rising; the other could be a human reflective decision in an attempt to “gain
the whole world.” I have to think that the Roman Empire is the primary example
of this kind of thinking. Imperial thinking is domination thinking; the
imperial leader is the Messiah and not the son of man. And to follow an imperial Messiah would be to hitch one's wagon to his victories and glory. That seems to be the path that
Peter wants to take and it may pose a sore temptation to Jesus – that is my take of
the “Get behind me Satan” reference. In the end, this is not a Roman road, but a crossroad.
The disciples – at this point – are not yet disciples because (led by Peter)
they are not yet behind Jesus, but are imagining themselves on a different path
in the manner of imperial dominion. Jesus is going the other way. It will lead
to Jerusalem, his rejection, suffering, death, and rising.
Just discovered your blog. Very helpful. I think you re dead right about this passage and appreciate the comments along the way, e.g. Re soul.
ReplyDeleteDbhamill, Welcome. I look forward to your input along the way.
ReplyDeletecan this be seen as a turning point for all? Jesus decides to make it known very clearly that he is not the 'Messiah' by Peter's definition or preconception,nor anyone else's but in God alone. He knows what they are all thinking and wants to tell them it's time to wake up and make a hard choice. Accept him for who he is and what IS going to happen and follow him no matter what or leave. This is important for me to realize anew whenever I am tempted to love Jesus as healer, teacher, witty preacher, miracle worker and 'forget' he sacrificed his life both in the living and through death so that resurrection can happen. I need to know resurrection is possible in my life both in the living and after death.
ReplyDeleteMarian,
ReplyDeleteExactly. Same here.
Greetings, Mark. Thanks for this post.
ReplyDeleteI am particularly interested in your take on the ‘Messianic Secret'. You introduced it in your entry of July 3, 2012, "Mission Grounded in Rejection" (or, at least, this was the first post in which I noticed it). Your exegesis in the current post supports your contention that Jesus' rejection of the ‘messiah' identification by his disciples (and possibly others) is a ‘redirection' of their focus back to their village-based mission of living in ways that carry forth the Realm of God. Jesus resists being the sole ‘embodiment' of the Realm because the Realm is necessarily embodied in all its participants. This is underlined starkly in this current post by your remarks on Jesus' rebuke of Peter's rebuke - Jesus calling Peter "Satan" with this name's association with Jesus' wilderness temptations; Peter needs to "get behind" (follow) Jesus.
I realize that I'm kinda ‘running with it' and could be misinterpreting and misrepresenting your intent. The ‘messianic secret' has always been perplexing to me; I have read many scholarly (and not-so-scholarly) explanations for it and have found none of them particularly convincing. Your "not-quite-developed opinion" (as you described it in your July 3 post) has been like opening a window, allowing light and fresh air to fall upon a shadowy and stale subject; moreover, opening new possibilities for understanding more deeply our own interactive roles as participants-embodying-the-Realm-of-God.
Run Barry, Run! This is exactly the direction that I'm seeing in Mark's gospel. Thank you for the comment and the affirmation. Sometimes I get that weird feeling that I'm reading a different gospel from others when the comment on Mark. Your comment lets me know that I am not completely alone in my alternate Mark universe.
ReplyDeleteI should warn you, however. Cross-referencing one blog entry to another might be maddening if you do it too often. :-)
Heh, yes, cross-referencing blog entries can turn into a "connect-the-dots" puzzle, but the dots aren't numbered!
ReplyDeleteIt occurs to me, belatedly, that the notion of Jesus' redirection of his disciples' enthusiasm into "participants-embodying-the-Realm-of-God" is addressed by another (and earlier) New Testament writer who uses the organic language "Body of Christ" to refer to that community of Jesus-followers who endeavor to live in ways that carry forth and bear witness to the Realm of God. While neither Mark (nor any other gospel-writer) uses "Body of Christ", your musings on the ‘messianic secret' suggest that the concept, if not the specific turn of phrase, was deeply woven into Mark's testimony.
Very interesting and plausible interpretation of this passage, thanks. I'm particularly taken by the attention you draw to "behind me".
ReplyDeleteOne question about psyche:
And, of course, in Greek philosophy, the “immortality of the soul” reified and elevated the psyche to that part of human existence that both pre-existed our birth and continues to exist after our death. One of the challenges of the early church was to translate the Hebrew concepts of life, breath, nephesh, etc., and interpret them alongside of Greek terms.
Shouldn't the Hellenistic Jews who had translated and been praying with the Septuagint already have had a working Greek vocabulary for these biblical ideas?
Victoria,
ReplyDeleteI'm not an Intertestmental scholar, but my sense is that the translation of the LXX and the Greekification of Hebrew terms (sorry, I just love phrases like that) continued to be negotiated in Jesus' time and among the early church. For example, the Sadducees were fighting against some of the new-fangled beliefs that weren't substantiated by the Torah, such as the idea of the resurrection. And, the Christian understanding of 'resurrection' seems different than the Greek sense of the immortality of the soul.
I suspect there was a confluence of the Greek philosophical tradition, the Hebrew biblical tradition, Wisdom traditions, and so forth that required people to stipulate meanings sometimes, instead of simply assuming them.
So, while I can't say for sure, I think some of the language and thoughts were still hot topics in the 1st century.
Victoria,
ReplyDeleteAlways great and thought-provoking to hear from you.
Thanks.
Thanks Mark! I'm thinking of doing a short paper this term on how the Christian idea of the afterlife developed and diverged from the Jewish and Greek ideas, so this is interesting.
ReplyDeleteThanks also for the kind words :) which embolden me to draw your attention to a comment I made last month that perhaps you missed? I'd be curious if you had any thoughts on it. http://leftbehindandlovingit.blogspot.com/2012/08/scandalizing-words-are-life-giving-words.html?showComment=1346206703539#c6573029879213166305
cheers,
Victoria
Victoria,
ReplyDeleteI went back and responded to your question on the August 28 text. My response is probably not very coherent, since I'm now immersed in the gospel text for Sept.23, and can't seem to re-wind my mind back to a very different text at the moment. Nonetheless, as usual, you ask a very perceptive question. Thanks.
Mark, this is a great help this week. I always appreciate your insights and the detailed work you do with the language. Thank you for being one of the voices I get to take with me into the text this week!
ReplyDeleteThanks, Shannon. It's nice to know that we can share this journey. Blessings on your ministry.
DeleteThe idea of resurrection has been attributed more to the exposure to Zoroastrianism while held in captivity and control of Persia. This idea arises with the formation of the synagogue as a central organization for religious life, a part from the Temple. Greek culture would have found the concept of bodily resurrection abhorrent, preferring a soul that has escaped the material bounds of the less than ideal world. So those who supported the idea of resurrection would have been those who were also less attached to the Temple as a center of religious life.
ReplyDeleteThis group would have felt marginalized by religious-political system allowed by Rome at that time. This group would also be familiar and made use of the books of the Apocrypha, which were also not accepted by the Temple based religious leaders. Many of those were written in Greek, so these would have contained concepts that supported resurrection. These would be familiar with the early Christians, before the writing of the New Testament. So in my tracing of the concept of resurrection, it comes as development from the contacts with Persia, not from the Hellenization of the Jewish culture, and is given footing through the traditions of the synagogue rather than the Temple.
Mark, I appreciate the edginess. I add to it the location and date of Mark. Mark pens his gospel shortly after Rome destroyed Jerusalem. Caesar and his son who succeeds him have terrorized Galilee, crucifying ten thousand plus. Caesar Philippi is a major encampment with shrines to Pan and the Emperor. Since Q lacks the cross and resurrection, it is Paul's letters that promote "knowing Christ and his cross". Mark's narrative is anti-imperial program, with many scenes having a reference to the brutally violent imperial campaign that happened during the war. Jesus consistently provides nonviolent antidotes. Among those who were crucified in the war were messianic figures who issued calls to arms and led insurrections.
ReplyDeleteFitzmeyer has argued that Matthew 16 is a post-resurrection narrative in grounding the church in Peter's words. In any event, the narrative comes after the brutal imperial campaign. The first hearers of this gospel would have clearly known who the Son of Man (the Human Child) sided with - in execution.