Below is a rough translation and some preliminary comments regarding Mark 3:20-35, the Revised Common Lectionary Reading for the third Sunday after Pentecost.
I see this pericope as another example of Mark’s bracketing/sandwiching technique. Vv.20-21 describe Jesus’ enormous popularity and the concern of his family about his sanity. Vv. 31-35 finish that story when his mother and brothers arrive and call for him and Jesus responds by re-apprising who his family is. In between the two parts of that story are vv.22-30, where Jesus responds to the Scribes’ accusations in parables. Now, the question is, what does this structural analysis tell us about the meaning of the text? Is it simply good storytelling? Or, it is a technique that enables us to read the story in a particular way? It has often been my impression that the inner layer and the outer layers of Mark's bracketed stories are inherently connected, offering ways for us to interpret each of them. I will circle back to this possibility following the raw exegesis.
20Καὶ ἔρχεται εἰς οἶκον: καὶ συνέρχεται πάλιν [ὁ] ὄχλος, ὥστε μὴ δύνασθαι αὐτοὺς μηδὲ ἄρτον φαγεῖν.
And he comes into a house; and [the] crowd gathers again, so that they are not able to eat any bread.
ἔρχεται : PMI 3s, ἔρχομαι, 1) to come 1a) of persons 1a1) to come from one place to another, and used both of persons arriving and of those returning
συνέρχεται: PMI 3s, συνέρχομαι, 1) to come together 1a) to assemble 1b) of conjugal cohabitation 2) to go (depart) or come with one, to accompany one
δύνασθαι: PMInf, δύναμαι, 1) to be able, have power whether by virtue of one's own ability and resources, or of a state of mind, or through favourable circumstances, or by permission of law or custom
φαγεῖν: AAInf, ἐσθίω, 1) to eat 2) to eat (consume) a thing 2a) to take food, eat a meal 3) metaph. to devour, consume
1. Some manuscripts have “They come into a house” as part of v.19. Others have “He comes into a house” as part of v.20.
2. Some translations leave out “bread.”
3. There is a double negative of “not able to eat” and “no bread” which would sound too awkward, so I made it “any bread.”
4. After the confrontation with the Pharisees over the healing of the man with the withered hand on the Sabbath, the Pharisees conspire with the Herodians on how to destroy Jesus, but with the crowd Jesus has become enormously popular (vv. 7-12). Jesus seems to have escaped the crowd for a time, to appoint the 12, but now they have reassembled. When Jesus’ family arrives, the crowded house explains why they had to call him from outside and send someone to fetch him.
21καὶ ἀκούσαντες οἱ παρ' αὐτοῦ ἐξῆλθον κρατῆσαι αὐτόν, ἔλεγον γὰρ ὅτι
ἐξέστη.
And having heard, his people came to take him, for they were saying that he was insane.
ἀκούσαντες : AAPart npm, ἀκούω, 1) to be endowed with the faculty of hearing, not deaf
ἐξῆλθον : AAI 3p, ἐξέρχομαι, 1) to go or come forth of 1a) with mention of the place out of which one goes, or the point from which he departs
κρατῆσαι : AAInf, κρατέω, 1) to have power, be powerful 1a) to be chief, be master of, to rule 2) to get possession of 2a) to become master of, to obtain 2b) to take hold of 2c) to take hold of, take, seize
ἔλεγον: IAI 3p, λέγω, 1) to say, to speak 1a) affirm over, maintain 1b) to teach 1c) to exhort, advise, to command, direct
ἐξέστη: AAI 3s, ἐξ/ίστημι, 1) to throw out of position, displace 1a) to amaze, to astonish, throw into wonderment 1b) to be amazed, astounded 1c) to be out of one's mind, besides one's self, insane
1. οἱ παρ' αὐτοῦ literally reads, “the ones alongside him.” Some translators interpret this to be “family” (NIV, ESV, NRSV) and others “his friends” (KJV, YLT). I’m going with “his people,” but below (v.31) there is mention that his mother and brothers came, sending for him, so I think “family” would be a good call for a refined translation.
2. ἐξ/ίστημι literally means to “stand outside.” I’m pretty sure this is the origin of the English word “ecstasy.” Someone might help me on that. In other places, it is interpreted as “astonished” or “amazed.” The KJV and YLT interpret it here as “beside himself.” The verb ίστημι is repeated in the parables that Jesus says in vv. 24, 25, and 26, so I’ll mark them in green.
3. Who are the “they” who were saying that Jesus is insane? Was it his people, as an explanation of why they had come? Was it others, in response to which Jesus’ people had come? It is not quite clear what the antecedent is. Grammatically, it would seem to be the fam.
22καὶ οἱ γραμματεῖς οἱ ἀπὸ Ἱεροσολύμων καταβάντες ἔλεγον ὅτι Βεελζεβοὺλ ἔχει, καὶ ὅτι ἐν τῷ ἄρχοντι τῶν δαιμονίων ἐκβάλλει τὰ δαιμόνια.
And the scribes having come down from Jerusalem were saying “He has Beelzebul,” and “In the ruler of the demons he casts out the demons.”
καταβάντες : AAPart npm, καταβαίνω, 1) to go down, come down, descend 1a) the place from which one has come down from 1b) to come down
ἔλεγον: IAI 3p, λέγω, 1) to say, to speak 1a) affirm over, maintain 1b) to teach 1c) to exhort, advise, to command, direct
ἔχει: PAI 3s, ἔχω, 1) to have, i.e. to hold 1a) to have (hold) in the hand
ἐκβάλλει: PAI 3s, ἐκβάλλω, 1) to cast out, drive out, to send out
1. I am interpreting the double ὅτι as indicating two quotations.
2. Young’s Literal Translation interprets this verse as part of the same sentence as v.21, making these claims part of what prompted Jesus’ friends (Young's interpretation of “those who were alongside him”) to come. I see it as the beginning of a second story within the first story. Nonetheless, if the “they” of v.21 refers to “those whose charges prompted Jesus' family/friends to come and fetch him,” then was vv. 22-30 might be the backstory to the charge that Jesus is beside himself.
3. And that raises the question, is the charge of Jesus’ insanity in v.21 the same as this charge that he has a demon and is working through the chief of the demons?
4. This is the only mention of Beelzebul in Mark. Jesus does not use that name when addressing the charge against him like he does in Matthew 12 and Luke 11. I’m always a little curious at the assumptions in play whenever a text makes reference to the mythology of order, within Satan’s realm or heaven’s realm. It seems to be an order that is never quite spelled out, but presumable the hearers and readers know it.
23καὶ προσκαλεσάμενος αὐτοὺς ἐν παραβολαῖς ἔλεγεν αὐτοῖς, Πῶς δύναται
Σατανᾶς Σατανᾶν ἐκβάλλειν;
And having called to them in parables he was saying to them, “How is Satan able to cast out Satan?
προσκαλεσάμενος: AMPart nsm, προσκαλέομαι, 1) to call to
ἔλεγεν: IAI 3s, λέγω, 1) to say, to speak 1a) affirm over, maintain 1b) to teach 1c) to exhort, advise, to command, direct
δύναται: PMI 3s, δύναμαι, 1) to be able, have power whether by virtue of one's own ability and resources
ἐκβάλλειν: PAInf, ἐκβάλλω, 1) to cast out, drive out, to send out
1. The parables begin here and extend until v.29.
2. I wonder if the participle of “calling” (προσκαλέομαι) is needed because this is a loud and chaotic event. It will return in v.31.
3. This time the “them” seems to be the scribes, because Jesus is addressing the claim attributed to them.
4. The first “them” is the accusative object of the participle “having called them,” and the second is dative, showing the indirect object of the verb “saying to them.”
5. The verb δύναμαι (“to be able”) appears in 5 successive verses, therefore I have them in red. Jesus’ answer to the scribes’ accusations are about ability.
6. Mark says these are parables. I often find the meaning of the word “parable” to be elusive. Are they, for example, “indirect speech” as opposed to “direct speech”? Are the references to “kingdom” in v.24 and to “house” in v.25 speaking directly of Satan’s realm or are they indirect, metaphors from the Roman Empire that demonstrate a truth about Satan’s power? Verse 27 seems to be what I typically understand as a “parable.” The others seem like they could be direct speech.
24 καὶ ἐὰν βασιλεία ἐφ'ἑαυτὴν μερισθῇ, οὐ δύναται σταθῆναι ἡ βασιλεία
ἐκείνη:
And if a kingdom were divided against itself, that kingdom is not able to stand;
μερισθῇ: APSubj 3s, μερίζω, 1) to divide 1a) to separate into parts, cut into pieces
δύναται: PMI 3s, δύναμαι, 1) to be able, have power whether by virtue of one's own ability and resources
σταθῆναι: APInf, ἵστημι, 1) to cause or make to stand, to place, put, set 1a) to bid to stand by, [set up]
25 καὶ ἐὰν οἰκία ἐφ' ἑαυτὴν μερισθῇ, οὐ δυνήσεται ἡ οἰκία ἐκείνη σταθῆναι.
And if a house is divided against itself, that house will not be able to stand.
μερισθῇ: APSubj 3s, μερίζω, 1) to divide 1a) to separate into parts, cut into pieces
δυνήσεται: FMI3s, δύναμαι, 1) to be able, have power whether by virtue of one's own ability and resources
σταθῆναι: APInf, ἵστημι, 1) to cause or make to stand, to place, put, set 1a) to bid to stand by, [set up]
26καὶ εἰ ὁ Σατανᾶς ἀνέστη ἐφ' ἑαυτὸν καὶ ἐμερίσθη, οὐ δύναται στῆναι
ἀλλὰ τέλος ἔχει.
And if the Satan rose up against himself and was divided, he is not able to stand but has an end.
ἀνέστη : AAI 3s, ἀνίστημι, 1) to cause to rise up, raise up 1a) raise up from laying down 1b) to raise up from the dead
ἐμερίσθη: API 3s, μερίζω, 1) to divide 1a) to separate into parts, cut into pieces
δύναται : PMI 3s, δύναμαι, 1) to be able, have power whether by virtue of one's own ability and resources
στῆναι : AAInf, ἵστημι, 1) to cause or make to stand, to place, put, set 1a) to bid to stand by, [set up]
ἔχει: PAI 3s, ἔχω, 1) to have, i.e. to hold 1a) to have (hold) in the hand,
27ἀλλ' οὐ δύναται οὐδεὶς εἰς τὴν οἰκίαν τοῦ ἰσχυροῦ εἰσελθὼν τὰ σκεύη αὐτοῦ
διαρπάσαι ἐὰν μὴ πρῶτον τὸν ἰσχυρὸν δήσῃ, καὶ τότε τὴν οἰκίαν αὐτοῦ
διαρπάσει.
But no one having entered the house of the strong one is able to plunder his goods unless first he might bind the strong one, and then he will plunder his house.
δύναται: PMI 3s, δύναμαι, 1) to be able, have power whether by virtue of one's own ability and resources
εἰσελθὼν: AAPart nsm, εἰσέρχομαι, 1) to go out or come in: to enter
διαρπάσαι: AAInf, διαρπάζω, 1) to plunder
δήσῃ: AASubj 3s, δέω, 1) to bind tie, fasten 1a) to bind, fasten with chains, to throw into chains
διαρπάσει: FAI 3s, διαρπάζω, 1) to plunder
1. If Jesus has “cast out Satan,” or has “plundered Satan’s house of goods,” then it is not because is in cahoots with Satan but because he has bound Satan to make him powerless to stop the plunder. His accusers should be rejoicing in this.
28 Ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι πάντα ἀφεθήσεται τοῖς υἱοῖς τῶν ἀνθρώπων, τὰ
ἁμαρτήματα καὶ αἱ βλασφημίαι ὅσα ἐὰν βλασφημήσωσιν:
Amen I say to you that all will be forgiven to the sons of men, the sins and the blasphemies which they might have blasphemed;
ἀφεθήσεται : FPI 3s, ἀφίημι, 1) to send away 1a) to bid going away or depart 1a1) of a husband divorcing his wife
βλασφημήσωσιν: AASubj 3p, βλασφημέω, 1) to speak reproachfully, rail at, revile, calumniate, blaspheme 2) to be evil spoken of, reviled, railed at
1. Many translations add “the sins” to “all will be forgiven” in the first clause.
2. This is a rather astonishing comment! “All sins and blasphemies that the sons of men might have blasphemed will be forgiven.” It is not a subjunctive, “might be forgiven,” but the future indicative, “will be forgiven.”
…bulletin…this just in...ALL SINS WILL BE FORGIVEN…except one (see v.29)...
3. Given the significance of Mark’s phrase “son of man” to describe Jesus, I find the phrase “sons of men” to be intriguing. I would normally be inclined to translate the phrase inclusively, but in this case I would want to keep the connection between those two phrases. (Using the quick word search of thebible.org, I do not see this phrase anywhere else in Mark.)
4. This verse has both the nominal and verbal forms of “blaspheme.” For the noun, Jesus was accused of speaking blasphemies in Mk. 2:7. He will list “blasphemy” among an interesting list of things that come out of a person and defile him, as opposed to things going into a person and defiling him in 7:21-22. And Jesus will be accused of blasphemy and condemned for it in 14:64. The verb and noun appear together in 2:7 and here, then the verb reappears in 15:29 as Jesus is tormented by onlookers while on the cross.
5. We note that in this case it is Jesus who is speaking of the blasphemy of others.
29 ὃς δ' ἂν βλασφημήσῃ εἰς τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον οὐκ ἔχει ἄφεσιν εἰς τὸν
αἰῶνα, ἀλλὰ ἔνοχός ἐστιν αἰωνίου ἁμαρτήματος
But whoever would blaspheme against the holy spirit does not have forgiveness into the eons, but is liable to an age-long sin.”
βλασφημήσῃ: AASubj 3s, , βλασφημέω, 1) to speak reproachfully, rail at, revile, calumniate, blaspheme 2) to be evil spoken of, reviled, railed at
ἔχει: PAI 3s, ἔχω, 1) to have, i.e. to hold 1a) to have (hold) in the hand,
ἐστιν : PAI 3s, εἰμί, 1) to be, to exist, to happen, to be present
1. The word ἁμαρτήματος (here) and the plural form ἁμαρτήματα (v.28) is a derivative of ἁμαρτία, the more common word for sin. It is interesting that the KJV and YLT both interpret the first use (v.28) as “sins” and the second as “damnation” (KJV) or “judgment” (YLT).
2. “Blasphemy against the holy spirit” seems to need no introduction as Jesus uses it without explanation. Whatever we might imagine it to be in general, in this pericope it seems to be the act of attributing the enabling of the holy spirit to Satan, Beelzebul, demons, evil spirits, etc., as the Scribes are doing.
30 ὅτι ἔλεγον, Πνεῦμα ἀκάθαρτον ἔχει.
Because they were saying, “He has an evil spirit.”
ἔλεγον: IAI 3p, λέγω, 1) to say, to speak 1a) affirm over, maintain 1b) to teach 1c) to exhort, advise, to command, direct
ἔχει: PAI 3s, ἔχω, 1) to have, i.e. to hold 1a) to have (hold) in the hand
1. This verse seems to conclude what began in v.22, the accusation that Jesus “has Beelzebul.” There, the “they” is clearly “the scribes,” per v.22. So, it is the Scribes who came down form Jerusalem who are committing this blasphemy against the Holy Spirit.
31Καὶ ἔρχεται ἡ μήτηρ αὐτοῦ καὶ οἱ ἀδελφοὶ αὐτοῦ καὶ ἔξω στήκοντες
ἀπέστειλαν πρὸς αὐτὸν καλοῦντες αὐτόν.
And his mother and his brothers are coming to him and staked outside sent to him calling him.
ἔρχεται: PMI 3s, ἔρχομαι, 1) to come 1a) of persons 1a1) to come from one place to another, and used both of persons arriving and of those returning
στήκοντες: PAPart npm, στήκω, 1) to stand firm 2) to persevere, to persist 3) to keep one's standing
ἀπέστειλαν: AAI 3p, ἀποστέλλω, 1) to order (one) to go to a place appointed 2) to send away, dismiss 2a) to allow one to depart, that he may be in a state of liberty
καλοῦντες: PAPart npm, καλέω, to call 1a) to call aloud, utter in a loud voice
1. As I said above, I believe this verse picks up the narrative of v.21, making this a Markan bracketing of one story (22-30) within another (20-21, 31-35). But, see my note in v.22 n.2 that Young’s Literal Translation suggests a different outline.
2. The verb στήκω has a kind of persistence to it. It could be translated “standing” but it is different from the verb ἵστημι that Jesus uses throughout the parables. I suspect that the family’s persistence has to do with the crowd and their determination to send for Jesus despite not being able to approach him. Or, perhaps they are insisting that he is insane and not demonized.
32καὶ ἐκάθητο περὶ αὐτὸν ὄχλος, καὶ λέγουσιν αὐτῷ, Ἰδοὺ ἡ μήτηρ σου καὶ οἱ
ἀδελφοί σου [καὶ αἱ ἀδελφαι σου] ἔξω ζητοῦσίν σε.
And a crowd was seated around him, and are saying to him, “Behold your mother and your brothers [and your sisters] are seeking you outside.
ἐκάθητο: IMI 3s, κάθημαι, 1) to sit down, seat one's self 2) to sit, be seated, of a place occupied 2a) to have a fixed abode, to dwell
λέγουσιν : PAI 3p, λέγω, 1) to say, to speak
ζητοῦσίν : PAI 3p, ζητέω, 1) to seek in order to find 1a) to seek a thing
33καὶ ἀποκριθεὶς αὐτοῖς λέγει, Τίς ἐστιν ἡ μήτηρ μου καὶ οἱ ἀδελφοί [μου];
And answering to them he says, “Who is my mother and [my] brothers?
ἀποκριθεὶς : APPart nsm, ἀποκρίνομαι, 1) to give an answer to a question proposed, to answer
λέγει: PAI 3s, λέγω, 1) to say, to speak
ἐστιν : PAI 3s, εἰμί, 1) to be, to exist, to happen, to be present
1. These kinds of texts really force us to think that Jesus was not a proponent of the kind of family values that many people say is the whole point of faithfulness (per the phrase, “The family that prays together, stays together.” In texts like these, I think Jesus would opt for something more like, “Those who pray together are family,” where prayer is the point and not simply a means to an end.
34καὶ περιβλεψάμενος τοὺς περὶ αὐτὸν κύκλῳ καθημένους λέγει, Ἴδε ἡ
μήτηρ μου καὶ οἱ ἀδελφοί μου.
And having looked around those seated encircled around him, he says, “Behold my mother and my brothers.
περιβλεψάμενος: AMPart nsm, περιβλέπω,to look round about.
καθημένους: PMPart apm, κάθημαι,1) to sit down, seat one's self 2) to sit, be seated, of a place occupied 2a) to have a fixed abode, to dwell
λέγει: PAI 3s, λέγω, 1) to say, to speak
Ἴδε:imperative of εἶδον (to see) used as an interjection,
1. I would imagine that this story poses a problem for some ways that the church has regarding Mary in the same way that many of Mark’s stories pose problems for some ways that the church has regarded the disciples. (And by “ways that the church has regarded” I am referring to perspectives that go as far back as some of the other gospels.)
35 ὃς [γὰρ] ἂν ποιήσῃ τὸ θέλημα τοῦ θεοῦ, οὗτος ἀδελφός μου
καὶ ἀδελφὴ καὶ μήτηρ ἐστίν.
[For] whoever might do the will of God, that is my brother and sister and mother.
ποιήσῃ: AASubj 3s, ποιέω,1) to make 1a) with the names of things made, to produce, construct, form, fashion, etc.
ἐστιν : PAI 3s, εἰμί, 1) to be, to exist, to happen, to be present
1. Look at Jesus getting all inclusive in his language on the conclusion!
2. Since Jesus has already declared the folks sitting encircled around him as his family, then doing the will of God is not some impossible dream, but seems to be (in this case) accepting Jesus’ works as prompted by the power of God and not Satan, and gathering around him instead of conspiring against him or coming to fetch him as a lunatic.
So, now we can return to the question of whether the inner and outer layer of Mark's bracketing (if that's what this pericope is) enables us to understand the text better. Here's my best shot.
If the charge of insanity in vv. 20-21, then 31-35 (the outer bracket) and the accusation that Jesus is operating in collusion with demons in vv. 22-29 are essentially the same, it seems that Jesus may be arguing via parables that the charge itself if flawed, because he is, in fact, casting out demons. And it is not just a matter of flawed logic. To name that which is empowered by the Holy Spirit as being a work of demonic power is to blaspheme the Holy Spirit, a sin above all sins. Furthermore, one can see how pervasive and pernicious this sin is, because it can even affect family relationships, such as Jesus' kinfolk. On the other hand, there is good news here! Satan's house can be plundered and those who do the will of God - synonymous with those gathered around this very popular Jesus - become family with Christ.
Hmm....
Mark, this is so helpful, thank you. I too, was confused about who was saying that Jesus was insane. It seems as if it is the religious leaders, maybe piling onto the excitement that is already happening when people are elbow to elbow listening to something they have never heard quite that like before. A vision of a place or a state of being that they are not familiar with...would be disconcerting or even disturbing, and when it was delivered outside the synagogue, well, it might be seen as suspect, maybe? So, perhaps, his family is trying to "shut him up" so they won't be ostracized from their hometown. And it gives Jesus a chance to deconstruct the family as they knew it and then remake/reconstruct in the image of God? That is a trail I am following right now...
ReplyDeleteI love your translations, they are really good and thoughtful. Thanks for sharing your gifts to inform us preachers who are as proficient.
Erin Thomas
Calvary Riverside
*...who aren't as proficient!*
DeleteThanks, Erin. I like where you're going with this. I remember years ago Jack Rogers said we tend to think of those who disagree with us as either 'ignorant' or 'evil,' because what we believe is so obviously right. It dawned on me when translating this text that Jesus was charged with these very things - he was either insane or diabolical. That's been gnawing at me all week.
DeleteThanks again for your note.
MD
I think you're right about the root:
ReplyDeleteecstasy (n.)
late 14c., extasie "elation," from Old French estaise "ecstasy, rapture," from Late Latin extasis, from Greek ekstasis "entrancement, astonishment, insanity; any displacement or removal from the proper place," in New Testament "a trance," from existanai "displace, put out of place," also "drive out of one's mind" (existanai phrenon), from ek "out" (see ex-) + histanai "to place, cause to stand," from PIE root *sta- "to stand, make or be firm."
https://www.etymonline.com/word/ecstasy
Yes. I thought so. I remember Tillich talking about 'ecstasy' meaning to 'stand outside oneself.' That puts being beside oneself with joy very close to being beside oneself with insanity, I think.
DeleteSo, the family say (as a defense against demonization or because they are afraid they will be driven out of town along with him, this time, or because they are genuinely flummoxed by his recent behavior) Jesus is standing outside himself, when in actuality the family who are trying to control Jesus, are the ones standing outside him - and are, along with most of the crowd, unable to really see him for who he really is.
ReplyDeleteI appreciate how you've highlighted the "stand" and "able/empowered" language, but I'm curious about the ek- . In the following chapter, we get a statement from Jesus that parables prevent "those outside" from understanding. Mark seems to be emphasizing that his family is among those outside, and this little band of outsiders he's surrounded himself with is inside. Jesus is casting demons out, but accused of it being an inside job, or perhaps being outside himself (I am so tempted to speak, as southerners might, of being above his raising).
ReplyDeleteHi Brian,
DeleteTo 'stand outside' can be a form of 'ec/stasy' or it can be a way of not participating in the inner circle. I appreciate the richness of the term and find it difficult find a one-size-fits-all interpretation for each case.
I've been intrigued by Werner Kelber's argument that Mark is offering a Galilean and small town based vision of how the Reign of God is actually at hand, as opposed to the Jerusalem or Temple based system that might have been more popular in Judea. Perhaps that pulls together the constant ignorance of the disciples who, according to Acts, did not return to Galilee after the resurrection as Jesus told them (Mk. 16:1-8) but instead set up the church's headquarters in Jerusalem. Kelber says that, for Mark, the disciples failed in their mission. And, if Jesus' mother and brothers were aligned with the disciples in Jerusalem, Mark may be making a distinction between Jesus' genetic family and his family of followers.
Maybe. That's thin ice and dependent on a number of suppositions more or less holding true, so I won't claim it in a loud voice, but I do suspect something like that might be in play.
I feel like these most recent posts say without actually saying what just became clear to me. The family that insists, for whatever reason, that Jesus is ‘standing outside himself’ are actually the very people quite literally standing outside the gate asking to be let in. While they assume Jesus is outside himself, they find themselves outside of his inner circle of trust.
ReplyDeleteHi Tobi,
DeleteThanks for chiming in and sharing what has become clear to you. It is indeed helpful to me and quite ironic.
MD
Mark - Thank you for your wonderful gift you give us in your translations and questions you ask. You are my first study when preparing a Gospel reading for a sermon. You always give me new insight and of course more questions. You are a blessing. I have a quick question. Is the word "called" the same word Jesus uses to call his disciples?
ReplyDeleteSorry - "called" as in vs. 23
ReplyDeleteYes, it is the verb καλέω, which is also the root of the word ekklesia, which we translate as "church," the 'called out' community. And thank you for your nice note.
Deleteec·sta·sy
ReplyDelete/ˈekstəsē/
Origin
late Middle English (in ecstasy (sense 2)): from Old French extasie, via late Latin from Greek ekstasis ‘standing outside oneself’, based on ek- ‘out’ + histanai ‘to place’. From Oxford Languages. Guess you were right!